Do Me A Favor 3/11/2006
St. Paul
Intro ----------------------------------
Do me a favor, will you?
When a friend comes up to you and says that -- how can you refuse?
When he says "Will you do me a favor?" -- a good friend expects you to
say "OK, what?" And for a good a friend you take a chance. You trust that he
will not ask you anything unreasonable, so you just say "Okay. What?"
We all know what a favor is. A favor is -- a favor. It's not something you
have to do. Not something you owe. Just something you are willing to do
for a friend. And you know he'll be grateful for it.
I used to work with a lady who was raised on a farm in southwestern
Minnesota. She used to tell me some stories about her father and his
approach to life.
This farm family, it turns out, was of an ethnic heritage made famous by
Garrison Keillor's Prairie Home Companion. It was a Minnesota Scandinavian
culture with some distinctive characteristics. He happened to be a
Norwegian farmer.
One of the things that she remembered about her father was that he did
not easily say "thank you".
When his wife made a big meal for him, and served it to him - well that
was her duty. He didn't say "thank you" for that.
He didn't say "thank you" for what others were supposed to do.
And I'm sure he didn't expect thanks for doing what he was supposed to do.
Seems kind of small, or stingy to us, doesn't it? We think of really
gracious people being liberal in their words of thanks.
But before we laugh too loudly at this man's approach, let's consider what
Jesus himself said about the subject:
Luke 17:7-10
7 But which of you, having a servant plowing or feeding cattle, will say
unto him by and by, when he is come from the field, Go and sit down to meat?
8 And will not rather say unto him, Make ready wherewith I may sup, and gird
thyself, and serve me, till I have eaten and drunken; and afterward thou
shalt eat and drink?
9 Doth he thank (charin) that servant because he did the things that were
commanded him? I trow not.
10 So likewise ye, when ye shall have done all those things which are
commanded you, say, We are unprofitable servants: we have done that
which was our duty to do.
My boss, for example, is not impressed because I show up every day.
He doesn't say "there's a problem in this part of the operating system -
would you do me a favor and look into it?"
Or, "Thanks for coming in yesterday." Or "tomorrow's Wednesday. Would you
do me a favor and come in to the office tomorrow?"
Christ here has made a distinction between a duty and a favor. He says
"thank you" to those things that are added to duty. To those actions
that are added as a "favor" on top of duty.
And that link between "thanks" and a "favor" is part of the Biblical meaning.
The word "favor" is sometimes translated "thankworthy". Here in the words of
Christ (verse 9) "does he thank that servant ...?", the word "thank" is the
same word used throughout the New Testament for "favor" and "grace". You
could say "does he 'say grace' to that servant?"
A "favor", or a "grace" is something you can be thankful for. If it was
owed, then is not a favor, or not "by grace". And therefore not
something that evokes thankfulness in the receiver.
There is a reason for the old expression of "saying grace" before a meal. It
is a thankfulness evoked by the receipt of something given as a favor.
We probably don't want to emulate the questionable "warmth" of some Minnesota
Norwegian farmers, but they do have a point. A point that's relevant to the
Biblical contrast between a favor and a debt.
SPS -------------------------------------------
This is a simple concept, so why do I bring it up?
Well there are sections of the Bible where the concept of a favor is a
point of doctrine and argument.
The apostle Paul, especially, goes to some length, especially in Romans and
Galatians, to make a distinction between a favor and a debt.
He takes some pains to clarify what God gives us freely, versus what he
owes us.
And that argument leads much of Christianity to some wrong conclusions.
So today I just want to focus on that subject. What is God's favor?
And especially, why does Paul have to emphasize that God's favor is not earned?
So, do me a favor, will you? Indulge me in a Biblical survey of the
subject of God's grace and favor.
Body -----------------------------------------
-- The Old Testament --
This subject presents some problems in the New Testament, but is really easy
in the Old. Let's start there.
"Grace" or "favor" is not a new concept. The word is "chen" in Hebrew. It is
used ~68 times in the Old Testament.
40 times as "grace", 26 as "favor". [1-pleasant 1-precious]
Virtually every time the word "grace" appears it is translated from this one
word.
It has quite a simple meaning:
God to Moses:
Exo 12:36
And the LORD gave the people favor in the sight of the Egyptians, so that
they lent unto them such things as they required. And they spoiled the
Egyptians.
Ruth to Boaz:
Rut 2:10
Then she fell on her face, and bowed herself to the ground, and said unto
him, Why have I found grace in thine eyes, that thou shouldest take
knowledge of me, seeing I am a stranger?
speaking of King Ahasuerus of Persia:
Est 2:17
And the king loved Esther above all the women, and she obtained grace and
favour in his sight more than all the virgins; ...
You get the idea .... The meaning is pretty obvious in the Old Testament.
And the concept of gaining God's favor and falling out of God's favor
is pretty obvious.
People gained favor of God, and favor of people. So that they could ask
of them, and be given what they asked. As a favor to a friend.
The New Testament makes important references to a few Old Testament examples.
These are particularly important Old Testament examples of gaining
God's favor:
Adam and Eve had God's favor. They had every blessing, every good gift
from him.
Gen 3:17-19
17 And unto Adam he said, Because thou hast hearkened unto the voice of thy
wife, and hast eaten of the tree, of which I commanded thee, saying, Thou
shalt not eat of it: cursed is the ground for thy sake; in sorrow shalt
thou eat of it all the days of thy life;
19 In the sweat of thy face shalt thou eat bread, till thou return unto the
ground; for out of it wast thou taken: for dust thou art, and unto dust
shalt thou return.
You've heard of the "fall of man". There surely was a fall. Not a change
in the nature of man. But surely a fall from God's favor - a "fall from
grace", when mankind first began to "thumb their nose" at him.
Abraham was called the friend of God.
Gen 15:5-6,13-14,18
5 And he [God] brought him [Abram] forth abroad, and said, Look now toward
heaven, and tell the stars, if thou be able to number them: and he said
unto him, So shall thy seed be.
6 And he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness.
Genesis never uses the word grace or favor when talking of Abraham. It
just obviously shows him to hold special favor by God.
Abraham "believed" God - which in the Bible means that you act like it
and do what he says. Which Abraham did. And as a result God makes a
promise of a favor. Something that He will do for Abraham's descendants:
13 And he said unto Abram, Know of a surety that thy seed shall be a
stranger in a land that is not theirs, and shall serve them; and they
shall afflict them four hundred years;
14 And also that nation, whom they shall serve, will I judge: and afterward
shall they come out with great substance.
18 In the same day the LORD made a covenant with Abram, saying, Unto thy
seed have I given this land, from the river of Egypt unto the great river,
the river Euphrates:
And the nation of Israel was founded on that grace.
Israel's exodus from Egypt is the other outstanding example of grace that
is prominent in the New Testament.
The Israelites in Egypt received God's favor, his help. Why?
Nothing is ever said about Israel doing anything themselves to gain favor in
God's eyes. They did not deserve their exodus from Egypt because of any
righteous behavior. Nothing is ever said that they were a God-fearing people.
Their deliverance was a pure favor - an unearned salvation by grace - a
favor to Abraham.
Exo 33:1
And the LORD said unto Moses, Depart, and go up hence, thou and the people
which thou hast brought up out of the land of Egypt, unto the land which I
sware unto Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob, saying, Unto thy seed will I
give it:
It was the land of promise to Abraham's physical descendants.
And in the New Testament, in Rom 4:16, Paul writes:
Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the
promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the
law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father
of us all,
The promises to Abraham are viewed to be the foundation of both the Old and
New covenants. Israel's exodus was a gift of grace, a favor. Saved, redeemed,
rescued as a favor to Abraham. By grace were they saved. Because Abraham
had obeyed and gained God's favor.
Someone asked me, in this context, if I thought that it is necessary to
keep the Sabbath to be saved.
My opinion on that is "absolutely not". Israel was saved, and they didn't
keep the Sabbath. Not, perhaps, that they didn't want to. But they were
not free to obey God's law. They were owned and controlled by Pharaoh.
[ironically, that control by Pharaoh was enabled by Joseph! Gen 48 Rom 9:17 ]
Their master gave them no day of rest, he only wore them out. Their
wages were death. But their salvation was the gift of God. Not because they
kept the Sabbath, but in order to allow them to keep the Sabbath. They were
freed from Pharaoh's rule into the privilege of God's law. That was salvation,
or redemption.
But that first generation fell from God's grace by their unbelief of God's
promises, and disobedience of God's laws, and they died without ever reaching
the promised land. That was their fall from grace.
That was "grace" in the Old Testament.
--- Did grace change in the New Testament? ---
Is it accurate to compare the use of the word "grace" in the Old Testament
to the use of that word in the New? Or are we perhaps comparing apples
to oranges?
Is the word "grace" in the New Testament the same as the word "grace" in
the Old?
Indeed it is.
We can go to a Greek translation of the Old Testament.
About 250 years before Christ, a group about 70 Jews of Alexandria translated
the scriptures to Greek. That translation, the Septuagint (or "seventy",
after the 70 translators) was the Old Testament in the Greek world in which
Paul taught.
So when Paul taught from the scriptures, and when he used the word "grace"
over and over, he was using the same word. We know that from comparing the
New Testament to the Septuagint.
So the simple meaning of "grace" or "favor" in the Old Testament is indeed
the same in the New.
We saw the word about 70 times in the Old Testament. In the much smaller
New Testament we see it used twice as often. About 140 times.
The word in Greek is "charis" == grace/favor.
[ 3 noun forms: charis nominative (used as subject or direct object) ]
[ charin genitive (expresses attributes or possession) ]
[ charitos accusative (as "him" is accusative of "he") ]
In the New Testament it is "grace" 129 times, and "favor" 6 times and a
form of "thanks" 8 times. [ also benefit,liberality,pleasure,acceptable ]
There are many places where the word has same obvious, simple meaning as it
does in the Old Testament:
Luk 1:30
And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour
with God.
Jam 4:6
But he giveth more grace. Wherefore he saith [quoting Pro 3:34], God
resisteth the proud, but giveth grace unto the humble.
It is a general term. There are many things that God gives us freely, as
favors to us. Here is a list of about 18 that I find in the New Testament:
forgiveness or redemption: Rom 3:24
hope: Rom 5:2
gifts: Rom 12:6
wisdom: 1Co 3:10
reconciliation to God: 2Co 5:20-6:1
generosity: 2Co 8:1,6
prosperity: 2Co 9:8
power: 2Co 12:9
commission to preach the gospel: Eph 3:8
general blessings: Col 1:2 thankfulness: Col 3:16
speech: Col 4:6
faith: 1Ti 1:14
help: Heb 4:16
righteousness: Heb 12:28
doctrine: Heb 13:9
calling and conversion: 1Pe 1:10
resurrection and eternal life: 1Pe 1:13
It's a long list. But my point is that "grace" is not one thing that God
gives. For example, grace is not forgiveness.
Forgiveness is "a" grace. It is one kind of favor.
But it is not true that grace is the same thing as forgiveness.
A Chevy is a car. But not all cars are Chevy's.
Grace is the gift of many things.
But the word "grace" is a key concept in some of the most difficult arguments
in the New Testament.
That's the hard part - Paul's arguments of grace versus law. So we'll look
at those next.
We know what Paul "doesn't" mean. It's plain from the many clear scriptures
that God's commandments are not "done away". But what "does" he mean by
such things as "ye are not under [the] law, but under grace"? Rom 6:14
Grace versus law is argued in 2 sections of the New Testament: Romans and
Galatians. I'll just focus on the subject of "grace" in these areas.
-- Romans 1-4 --
Romans 1 talks, generally, about how sinful the Gentile world is. Then Romans 2
talks about how sinful the Jews are, as well.
So he concludes chapter 2 (Rom 2:29):
29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the
heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men,
but of God.
So both Gentiles and Jews are sinners. They are all in a captive position,
just like the Israelites under Pharaoh.
In Paul's mind sin "reigns" over mankind:
Rom 3:9
What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before
proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;
And our "captive" state is restated later:
Rom 5:12
Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and
so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
[ we are all expelled from the Garden of Eden and the tree of life ]
Rom 5:21 That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through
righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.
Rom 8:2
For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from
the law of sin and death. (definite articles)
We are freed from the law -- but from the law of Pharaoh. It is sin's law and
death's law. Freed to be the servants of the good master.
But how? By joining Old Testament Israel? Here is Paul's argument about
"grace":
Rom 4:1-5
1 What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the
flesh, hath found?
2 For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but
not before God.
3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted
unto him for righteousness.
So the issue seems to be "favor". How did Abraham gain God's favor?
4 Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt.
5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the
ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
Here is that understanding of the Norwegian farmer - the difference between
what is earned, and what we should be thankful for, as a favor.
Paul is saying that God called Abraham out of Mesopotamia because he believed
God. God said I will give you a land and many descendants. And Abraham
believed and went. This belief was counted as righteousness - the reason for
God's favor. He did obey as well - in the Bible belief is synonymous with
obedience. But he did no outward rite or service to God.
But why did Paul have to argue this?
What kind of doctrine was contrary to the Church, that said you had to do
"works" to become one of God's people?
Rom 4:8-10
8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.
9 Cometh this blessedness then upon the circumcision only, or upon the
uncircumcision also? for we say that faith was reckoned to Abraham for
righteousness.
10 How was it then reckoned? when he was in circumcision, or in
uncircumcision? Not in circumcision, but in uncircumcision.
So circumcision is part of "works" in Paul's mind.
-- Works of Law --
Paul had been fending off the heretics of Galatia shortly before writing
Romans. Galatians was written first in maybe 57, then Romans in 57-58.
[or maybe earlier 52-3, 55] Paul had not been to Rome, so he may not be
writing with any specific opponents in mind. But he uses some of the same
arguments to the Romans that he did to the Galatians.
Not that the church in Rome was being influenced by the same heretics as
in Galatia. I don't know that the opponents of Asia Minor and Greece had
gone to Rome. And Paul also faced the opposition of observant Jews. They
advocated circumcision in order to become a Jew of the synagogue. They
advocated careful observance of the traditional laws of the Talmud. For
example, counting your steps on the Sabbath, or ritual washing of hands.
But in either case, Jew or false Christian heretic, "works of law" were
physical requirements that did no good. They left the convert in "prison",
under the law of sin, not taking God up on his offer of eternal life.
He warns them against seeking to become Christians by doing "works of law".
Rom 3:20
Therefore by [the] deeds of [the] law there shall no flesh be justified
in his sight: for by [the] law is the knowledge of sin.
Rom 3:28
Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without [the] deeds
of [the] law.
Rom 9:32
Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by [the]
works of [the] law.
[and "works" in 4:2,6 9:11, 11:6, 13:3]
He uses the same warning to the Galatians in Gal 2:16, Gal 3:2,5,10.
No one else ever uses that term. Not even the Jews in 1st and 2nd century
rabbinic writings.
"Works of [the] law" is something unique. Up until recently we had no concrete
examples of what Paul was combatting.
But a scroll from the Dead Sea scrolls provides a hint. That fragmentary work
is called the MMT ([miqsat] ma'ase ha-torah) for its reference to "some
important works of law". And in Greek that is "ergon nomou" -- exactly the
mysterious phrase "works of law" that Paul uses in Romans and Galatians.
Biblical Archaeology Review - Nov/Dec 1994 Martin Abegg
The writings found at Qumran come from a sect of Jewish "covenanteers", perhaps
Essenes. These people considered themselves a priesthood, the "sons of Zadok",
who was the high priest during David's reign. Their "works of law" as
concretely mentioned in this ancient document, were priestly matters of the
Old Testament tabernacle form of worship:
ritual purity (ritual bathing), uncleanness of vessels and holy food,
sacrifice of the red heifer, purity of the temple, purifying leprosy,
avoiding clothing of mixed materials
(go to ucgstp.org/scriptures
select "commentary" and search for Rom 3:20
link to the Biblical Archaeology Review article on the MMT
the MMT itself )
These are examples of "works of law" based on the Old Testament books of the
law. I'm not saying that Paul was fighting Essenes. But this is a concrete
example of the kinds of issues from the Old Testament rituals that were being
advocated to the church. Either literally by observant Jews, or allegorically
by heretics who claimed to know the way to God's favor.
Rituals and ceremonies - such as ritual circumcision - which were based on
the Biblical law, but given (especially in Galatia) special or secret
meaning. And meanwhile often freeing the practicer from real obedience to
God's law.
Here in Romans 3-4 it is being proved that Abraham gained God's favor -
his grace - before being circumcised.
The point being that we believe that God calls us. That we believe that he
has made a demonstration out of Jesus Christ that he calls us to be
reconciled to him. And he offers us a resurrection like Christ's.
And that offering was a free gift. We need practice no rituals, or ceremonies,
or cuttings, or self-denial to take God up on that offer.
-- Romans 6 --
Over in chapter 6 we see talk of grace again. And the contrast of the
old master and the new.
Rom 6:14-18
14 For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under [the] law,
but under grace.
15 What then? shall we sin, because we are not under [the] law, but under
grace? God forbid.
It should be "you are not under law". Not meaning "God's law", but "sin
shall not have dominion over you" - under law is being under the old master.
16 Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his
servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin unto death, or of
obedience unto righteousness?
17 But God be thanked, that ye were the servants of sin, but ye have obeyed
from the heart that form of doctrine which was delivered you.
18 Being then made free from sin, ye became the servants of righteousness.
The parallel with God's rescue of Israel from Egypt is striking here.
The old master was Pharaoh. The new master was God.
God brought them out of Egypt because of no righteousness of their own. There
is no mention of them being obedient to God while slaves in Egypt.
But he showed favor on them because of his promise to Abraham. That was
a gift, a favor to Abraham and to them. That was grace.
They were delivered from prison - from slavery.
They were no longer under law - he's not talking about God's law here - they
had not come to Sinai yet.
But they were "under law" to Pharaoh.
But when God brought them out, they were in his favor - in his grace.
And of course they were expected to obey their new master. And his law that
he was yet to give them in detail.
But a major point here in Romans is that Israel was brought out by grace.
They did not have to earn anything. They only had to believe that they
should kill the Passover lamb as God told them. And that they should walk
out of Egypt when he told them to.
Similarly we merely have to apply the blood of the Passover, repent and
walk out through the Red Sea of baptism.
We don't have to be circumcised. Or become ritually pure. Or become
vegetarians, or remain celibate. We don't replace the sacrifices of the
Sabbath, holydays or new moons with some allegorical equivalent.
Or do any of the things that Paul's opponents had been telling Christians
that they had to do.
I don't know exactly. I wish I did. It was some blend of things based in
some way on the laws of the Old Testament, but with adapted and allegorical
meanings. We hear Pauls' rebuttals here. But we don't hear them preach
their doctrines.
It's like coming into a conversation in the middle. You hear the reply, but
not the question. And so you can only guess at what was being said.
-- Romans 11 --
In Romans 11 he speaks of Jews' relationship to God.
And in verse 5 of those who have accepted God's new covenant.
Rom 11:5-6
5 Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to
the election of grace.
6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more
grace. But if it be of works, then it is no more grace: otherwise work
is no more work. [ergon]
Once again he has to argue the difference between a favor and a debt that
is owed. The favor that God has showed us, in calling us, is a favor
like that showed Israel in bringing them out of Egypt.
Notice his conclusion about them (the Jews):
Rom 11:32
32 For God has committed them all to disobedience, that He might have mercy
on all.
Here are some even clearer translations:
Moffat: For God had consigned all men to disobedience.
Montgomery: For God has locked up all in the prison of disobedience.
This is being "under law".
The election of grace is to be let out of the "prison". Jew or Gentile.
Talmud traditions or rites and rituals - neither brings the practicer of
"works" to God's spirit and the hope of the resurrection.
-- Galatians --
Galatians also contains this argument about grace versus "law".
Gal 2:21
21 I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by [the] law,
then Christ is dead in vain.
Note that here, as in most places in Galatians, and maybe in Romans, Paul is
not talking specifically about obeying God's laws, but about "law" in general.
Where there is no definite article in the Greek, it is not "the law" but "law".
(go to ucgstp.org/scriptures
select "commentary" and search for Rom 3:20
all chapters of Paul's epistles with "the" law noted )
What kind of "law" cannot make you righteous before God?
Look back to Gal 2:16
16 Knowing that a man is not justified by [the] works of [the] law, but by the
faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we
might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by [the] works of [the]
law: for by [the] works of [the] law shall no flesh be justified.
Here are 2 more of about 7 places in the New Testament where Paul speaks
of "works of law".
Once again, the writings of the Essenes about ritual cleanness, purity
of sacrifice, other mostly priestly issues shed some light on the kinds of
"works" that are being taught by Paul's opponents in Galatia.
Gal 5:3
3 For I testify again to every man that is circumcised, that he is a debtor
to do the whole law.
note also Gal 4:21
21 Tell me, ye that desire to be under [the] law, do ye not hear THE law?
Their form of law, their ritual law, did not mean they obeyed the laws of
God. He has to remind them. "You want rituals? Don't you read the book
that they came from?".
Again, who are these opponents who teach "works of law". And yet they have
no intention of actually obeying God. Paul has to tell them that if they
draw ceremonies from God's law to make them righteous, then they need to
obey the whole thing. They can't pick certain ceremonies and then practice
the evils that Paul accuses them of in other places.
Gal 5:4-5
4 Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by
[the] law; ye are fallen from grace.
5 For we through the Spirit wait for the hope of righteousness by faith.
How do you "fall from grace"? Paul is saying that God must "bring you out
of Egypt". You must accept his new Passover. If you rely on your "works of
law" (not "the" law) - your rites or initiations - or even the tabernacle
rituals themselves - you are not believing and obeying. You have fallen
from God's favor - or never joined his chosen people.
Here's another way to "fall from grace":
Heb 12:15-16
15 Looking diligently lest any man fail of the grace of God; lest any root
of bitterness springing up trouble you, and thereby many be defiled;
16 Lest there be any fornicator, or profane person, as Esau, who for one
morsel of meat sold his birthright.
Fornication is an example here of the behavior that offends God, who has
called us out of slavery and asks us to obey our new master.
Conclusion -------------------------------------------
So what am I trying to say with all this?
That "grace" is "doing a favor".
We seldom thank people for doing what they are paid to do. But we know
what "do me a favor" means - and that's the word grace.
The Old Testament uses the word in a way that's easy to understand. It
easily interchanges the expressions "find grace in your eyes" to "find favor
in your eyes".
And the word's meaning doesn't change from the Old Testament to the New.
We can see that by its translation from Hebrew to Greek in the Septuagint.
And it's also a general word in the New Testament. A term for all kinds of
God's favors to us.
But we see Paul uses it in a special way in his arguments. It is his term
for being in God's favor, by his goodness versus the carnal human state
of mortality and rebellion.
No matter whether the "works of law" are strictly Old Testament worship, or
some heretical magic formulas supposedly based on God's law. Neither way is
the entry to God's new Israel. Without belief in God's new promises, as
shown by Christ's example, he summarizes both as "under law".
His arguments are framed in the analogy of how we came out of bondage. Out of
bondage to sin and mortality. And into God's favor.